Questions about Speaking in Tongues

Is speaking in tongues biblical?

Speaking in tongues is certainly mentioned in the Bible. However, what many Christians today practice as “speaking in tongues” is not actually speaking in tongues according to the Bible:

Therefore, speaking in tongues is certainly biblical, but the modern popular practice of “speaking in tongues” is not biblical.

Can every Christian receive the ability to speak in tongues?

In 1 Corinthians 12:30, the Apostle Paul asked,

Do all speak in tongues?

This rhetorical question expects the answer, “No, not all speak in tongues.” In context, Paul was talking about how the Holy Spirit gives different gifts to different people (vv. 4–10). Like the other spiritual gifts, the ability to speak tongues is distributed by the Holy Spirit “as he wills” (v. 11). Therefore, just as not every Christian can be an apostle, be a prophet, be a teacher, work miracles, or perform healings, so also not every Christian can receive the ability to speak in tongues (vv. 28–30).

Why are so many Christians today able to speak in tongues?

What many Christians today practice as “speaking in tongues” is not speaking in tongues according to the Bible. Therefore, these Christians are not actually speaking in tongues, and they do not actually have the biblical gift of tongues.

Does “praying in the Holy Spirit” mean praying in tongues?

“Praying in the Holy Spirit” simply means to pray with the help of the Holy Spirit—and that can certainly be done in one’s native language. There is nothing in the Bible which indicates that “praying in the Holy Spirit” specifically means praying in tongues, as if the only way to pray in the Holy Spirit is by praying in tongues.

Moreover, while “praying in the Holy Spirit” is something that all Christians should do (Eph. 6:18; Jud. 20), speaking in tongues is something that not all Christians can do (1 Cor. 12:30). This makes it clear that “praying in the Holy Spirit” is not the same thing as praying in tongues.

Does 1 Corinthians 14:14 indicate that when one prays in tongues, the Holy Spirit is praying through him?

First Corinthians 14:14 says,

For if I pray in a tongue, my spirit prays but my mind is unfruitful. (ESV)

The pronoun “my” (Greek: μου) makes it clear that the word “spirit” here refers to the human spirit, and not the Holy Spirit. The Apostle Paul was affirming that when one prays in a tongue, his human spirit is praying; it is a genuine prayer from one’s own spirit.

In verses 15 and 16, the word for “spirit” is used with the definite article. This indicates that Paul was referring to the same “spirit” which he mentioned previously in verse 14—the human spirit, and not the Holy Spirit (c.f. ESV, NIV).

Does 1 Corinthians 13:1 indicate that speaking in tongues involves speaking in angelic languages?

First Corinthians 13:1 says,

If I speak in the tongues of men and of angels, but have not love, I am a noisy gong or a clanging cymbal. (ESV)

The “tongues of men and of angels” here do not refer to speaking in tongues. Whatever these “tongues of men and of angels” are, Paul’s argument in this passage implies that it is not possible to attain them. In the next verse, Paul lists other things which are not attainable, such as understanding all mysteries and all knowledge. In the same way that understanding all mysteries and all knowledge is impossible, it is likewise not possible to speak “the tongues of men and of angels”. Paul’s argument was that even if it were possible, it would be worthless if it were not done out of love.

Does 1 Corinthians 14:2 indicate that speaking in tongues does not involve speaking in human languages?

First Corinthians 14:2 says,

For one who speaks in a tongue speaks not to men but to God; for no one understands him, but he utters mysteries in the Spirit. (ESV)

It is often assumed that the “no one” here means absolutely no one. However, in context, the Apostle Paul was discouraging speaking in tongues in a church meeting if no interpretation is given. Therefore, the “no one” here refers to no one among those present in that church meeting.

Just because no one in the church meeting understands the one speaking in tongues does not mean that he is not speaking in a human language. Other Bible passages clearly indicate that speaking in tongues involves speaking in human languages (Acts 2:4, 6, 11).

Is Romans 8:26 about speaking in tongues?

Romans 8:26 says,

Likewise the Spirit helps us in our weakness. For we do not know what to pray for as we ought, but the Spirit himself intercedes for us with groanings too deep for words. (ESV)

It is sometimes assumed that the “groanings” mentioned in Romans 8:26 refer to speaking in tongues. However, there is nothing in the context which suggests that the “groanings” here refer to speaking in tongues.

Moreover, the “groanings” here are described as “too deep for words” (ESV, NASB), “cannot be uttered” (KJV), or “wordless” (NIV). The Greek word there is alalētos (ἀλάλητος), which means “speechless”. It is formed from the verb laleō (λαλέω), meaning “to speak”, with the negative prefix. This verb, laleō, is the same verb used throughout the New Testament for the act of “speaking in tongues”. Since “speaking in tongues” involves speaking, but these “groanings” do not involve speaking, then these “groanings” cannot refer to speaking in tongues.